Wednesday, 5 October 2016

FIN 590 Week 8 Final Exam Answers

FIN 590 Week 8 Final Exam Answers
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Question 1. 1. (TCOs B, C) The difference between the rate of return on assets and the cost of borrowing is: (Points : 5)

financial leverage
spread
debt service
none of the above


Question 2. 2. (TCO A) The investment decision process: (Points : 5)

is fundamentally the same for real estate investment analysis as for other investment areas
requires the investor to adjust expected cash flows for timing differences and risk
recognizes that investment assets are desired only for the benefits of ownership they bestow
all of the above are true


Question 3. 3. (TCO B) The revenue a property is expected to generate after adjusting for operating expenses but before providing for debt service or income tax consequences is: (Points : 5)

net operating income
effective gross income
normalized gross income
before-tax cash flow


Question 4. 4. (TCO H) Which of the following observations regarding demand for industrial space is untrue? (Points : 5)

Demand for industrial space is a derived demand.
Demand for industrial space is largely a function of the demand for products produced by the industrial sector.
Changes in demand for industrial space are more volatile than changes in demand for industrial goods.
Manufacturers generally adjust their space needs based on long-term projections of product demand


Question 5. 5. (TCO E) A real estate investment is available at an initial cash outlay of $10,000 and is expected to yield cash flows of $3,343.81 per year for five years. The internal rate of return is approximately: (Points : 5)

2%
20%
23%
17%


Question 6. 6. (TCO D) Potential disadvantages of the limited partnership include: (Points : 5)

losses for all limited partners, without exception, are treated as passive in nature
losses in excess of $25,000 in any one taxable year are treated as passive in nature
losses are treated as passive in nature, if the partner’s gross income exceeds $125,000
losses are treated as passive, as the partner’s gross income moves from $100,000 to $125,000


Question 7. 7. (TCO D) Which is a key difference between tenancy in common and joint tenancy? (Points : 5)

Tenancy in common carries right of survivorship.
Joint tenancy interests must be equal and undivided.
Tenancy in common interests must be equal but need not be undivided.
Joint tenancy interests are taxed as an association.


Question 8. 8. (TCO E) Two mutually exclusive projects are available for an investment of $4,900 each. Project S will generate cash flows of $6,000 per year for two years. Project L will generate cash flows of $2,400 per year for six years. At an opportunity cost of capital of 6%, which project will yield the highest net present value? (Points : 5)

Project S
Project L
The net present values are equal
Cannot be solved with the information provided


Question 9. 9. (TCO G) In contemporary risk analysis: (Points : 5)

risk is defined as the measurable likelihood of variance from the most probable outcome
no attempt is made to quantify risk
the terms risk and uncertainty are used synonymously
investors are viewed as being risk-neutral


Question 10. 10. (TCO B) A property has a potential gross rent of $1,500,000; operating expenses of $765,750; a vacancy allowance of $45,000, and other income of $9,000. What is its effective gross income? (Points : 5)

$1,455,000
$1,464,000
$698,250
none of the above


Page 2 (of 3)
Question 1. 1. (TCO A) If investors agree on the amount, timing, and certainty of after-tax cash flows associated with an investment proposition, and if they have the same opportunity cost of capital, would they generally place the same investment value on the property? Explain your answer. (Points : 20)


Question 2. 2. (TCOs A, B, C) Based on the following data, estimate net operating income. Show your work in good form.

Two-bedroom units rent for $600 per month (total of 40 units)
One-bedroom units rent for $450 per month (total of 20 units)
Vacancy and uncollectible rent losses typically amount to six percent of potential gross rent.
Operating expenses average approximately 45 percent of potential gross income. (Points : 30)


Question 3. 3. (TCOs C, D) A taxpayer paid $500,000 for a small industrial property (80 percent of the value is properly attributable to the building, the balance to the land) and incurred transaction costs that equaled five percent of the purchase price. During her 18th month of ownership, she sold the property for $550,000 and paid transaction costs equal to eight percent of the sales price. Compute the gain or loss on the sale. (Points : 20)


Question 4. 4. (TCOs C, D) How does an installment sales contract (land contract) (a) resemble a purchase-money mortgage in terms of purpose and parties involved and (b) differ from a purchase money mortgage? (Points : 20)


Question 5. 5. (TCO E) Describe the problem of multiple solutions associated with the internal rate of return computation.
(Points : 20)


Question 6. 6. (TCO E) What discounted cash flow approach works best when projects require different amounts of initial cash investment? Explain. (Points : 20)


Question 7. 7. (TCO E) What discounted cash flow approach works best when investors are faced with mutually exclusive opportunities? Explain. (Points : 20)


Page 3 (of 3) 

Question 1. 1. (TCOs F, G) What is a risk-reward indifference curve, and what gives it its characteristic shape? (Points : 20)


Question 2. 2. (TCOs F, G) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of the certainty equivalent technique of adjusting for risk? (Points : 20)


Question 3. 3. (TCO H) How do government agencies control and direct the subdivision process? (Points : 30)


FIN 630 Wk 12 Final Exam Answers

FIN 630 Wk 12 Final Exam Answers
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This exam is open book and is to be your individual work ONLY.  You are not allowed to consult with anyone in answering the questions.  If you have questions about the exam, please post them in the Discussion area under Questions and Answers.  That way, I can deal with all students as fairly as possible, especially those who might have the similar question.

You must show your work in excel worksheet; showing your work will also ease getting partial credit.  Using the templates will make it easier for you to solve the problems. I have shown the available points for each problem.

PLEASE WRITE YOUR NAME ON YOUR EXAM, in the title of your file as well.  Please consolidate your excel files and try to submit only one workbook with multiple tabs. Also do not forget to name the tabs to identify the questions/problems.

The exam is due by 11:59 pm, Tuesday, April 19, 2016. Please submit the completed exam under ‘Final Exam’ in the Assignment Folder.

Question 1.  Answer the problem #8-9 on page 299-302 from the TM textbook. (25 points)

Question 2.  Answer the problem #9-9 on pages 352-353 from the TM textbook. (25 points)

Question 3. Answer the problem #10-7 on pages 394-395 from the TM textbook. (25 points)

Question 4.  Answer the problem #11-5 on page 429 from the TM textbook. (25 points)




FNCE 451 Final Examination Questions and Answers

FNCE 451 Final Examination Questions and Answers
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1.Explain how to observe beta of an all-equity firm that is publicly listed. Suppose the dataset is short or polluted with some special events, how can you make the estimate more reasonable/robust?

2.In computing WACC for a capital budgeting decision, is it best practice to use target capital structure of the firm or actual financing structure of a project? To get the debt cost of capital, is it better to use market bond yields or coupons on the debt?

3.Use a cost-of-equity argument to explain why firms provide lots of disclosure, open quarterly calls to all investors, and seek a familiar/tradable share price.

4.State the result of Modigliani and Miller for capital structure with no taxes. List three assumptions and explain where we use that assumption.

5.Give 3 reasons to prefer dividends and 3 to prefer share repurchases. Give 2 reasons to do either versus keeping the cash.

6.Use the fact that IPO ‘fills’ depend on the hotness of the issue to explain why the observed average IPO first day rally is not necessarily a market anomaly.

7.Give examples of positive and negative convents. Justify their use via the tradeoff model for capital structure.

8.Compare a Canada call to a call provision at a set price. Why do issuers sometimes Canada-call their bonds?

9.Discuss drivers of option valuation.

10.Describe the covered call strategy and explain how to implement the same exposure using put options.

11.Use a combination of calls, a risk-free bond, and the overall firm to describe the exposure of firm equity holders and bond holders. Do it again with puts instead of calls.



GB 500 Assignment 1 Paper Market Research

GB 500  Assignment 1 Paper Market Research
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Assignment 1: Paper on the importance of market research (view grading rubric) You will be conducting an interview with a market research professional or a company representative. Post the highlights of the results of your individual Assignment in final draft form to the Discussion Board by Saturday night (attached in a Microsoft Word doc) or pasted into the Discussion area to give others the chance to read your work and make comments or ask questions. Use the results of your research to make specific recommendations on how market research can be applied to the Marketplace Simulation. Submit your 3–4 page APA formatted paper  I need  somebody that has a career market research


GB520 Unit 6 Assignment Grading Rubric

GB520 Unit 6 Assignment Grading Rubric
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Review the SHRM case, “
International HRM Case Study
.”
Prepare a 4–
6 page case analysis on the topic of strategic management and why it is critical to the success of
an organization in meeting its goals and mission. In your analysis respond to the following question: What is
strategic management and w
hy is it critical to the success of an organization in meeting its goals and mission?
Your analysis of this case and your written submission should reflect an understanding of the critical issues of
the case, integrating the material covered in the text, and present concise and well
-reasoned justifications for
the stance that you take.
Case analysis criteria:
Your case analysis should consist of:
A brief analysis of the situation and pending decision problem, as presented in the case, and as
relevant to
your answer. This should be exceptionally brief and you should assume the person reading
the Assignment is familiar with the details of the case.
Identification of the major issues surrounding the organization or individuals involved with the
organization.
Identification of alternate courses of action to address the issues identified.
The decision or recommendation for action, with the appropriate supporting arguments.
The case question is designed to guide the direction of your analysis in the case. Your analysis should
address and ultimately answer the question.
Additionally, in the case analysis make sure that you assess the value of multiculturalism and diversity in a
global
environment.
You may discuss your case analysis Assignment with the class, but you must submit your own original work.
Case analysis tips:
Avoid common errors in case analyses, such as:
Focusing too heavily on minor issues.
Lamenting because of insufficient data in the case and ignoring creative alternatives.
Rehashing of case
data

you should assume the reader knows the case.
Not appropriately evaluating the quality of the case’s data.
Obscuring the quantitative analysis or making it difficult to understand.
Typical “minus (
–)” grades result from submissions that:
Are
late.
Are not well integrated and lack clarity.
Do not address timing issues.
Do not recognize the cost implications or are not practical.
Get carried away with personal biases and are not pertinent to the key issues.
Are not thoroughly proofread and corrected.
Assignment submission:
Before you submit your Assignment, you should save your work on your computer
in a location that you will remember. Save the document using the naming convention:
Username_Unit6_Assignment.doc.
Assignment
Grading Rubric
Course: GB520
Unit:
6
Points:
100
Copyright Kaplan University
Make sure your document includes:
Your name
Date
Course name and section number
Unit number
Case name
Page numbers
The case analysis should be a minimum of 4–
6 pages long, double-
spaced. Check for correct spelling,
grammar, punctuation, mechanics, and usage. Citations should be in APA style.



GED 102 The Human Body unit 4 Examination

GED 102 The Human Body unit 4 Examination
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. The three mucosa-covered projections into the nasal cavity that greatly increase surface area of
mucosa exposed to air are called ________.
a. tonsils
b. adenoids
c. conchae
d. paranasal sinuses


2. The posterior portion of the palate that is not supported by bone is called the ________.
a. soft palate
b. paranasal sinus
c. epiglottis
d. hard palate


3. From superior to inferior, the three regions of the pharynx are the ________.
a. oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx
b. nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
c laryngopharynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx
d. nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx


4. The ________ tonsil, or adenoid, is located high in the nasopharynx region.
a. lingual
b. laryngeal
c. pharyngeal
d. palatine


5. The ________ routes air and food into their proper channels and plays a role in speech.
a. tongue
b. pharynx
c. nasal conchae
d. larynx


6. The mucosa-lined windpipe that extends from the larynx to the level of the fifth thoracic
vertebra is called the ________.
a. trachea
b. oropharynx
c. main (primary) bronchus
d. nasopharynxUnit 4 Examination 172 GED 102 The Human Body


7. ________ lining the mucosa of the trachea beat continuously to propel contaminated mucus to
the throat.
a. Microvilli
b. Coarse hairs
c. Cilia
d. Flagella


8. The process of physically and chemically breaking food particles down is referred to as
________.
a. digestion
b. defecation
c. ingestion
d. absorption


9. The ________ runs from the pharynx through the diaphragm to the stomach.
a. trachea
b. esophagus
c. larynx
d. small intestine


10. The innermost layer of the alimentary canal is referred to as the ________.
a. serosa
b. submucosa
c. mucosa
d. muscularis externa


11. The two intrinsic nerve plexuses serving the alimentary canal are the ________.
a. solar; sympathetic
b. submucosa; myenteric
c. autonomic; somatic
d. mucosa; submucosa


12. The ________ sphincter, or valve, controls food movement from the stomach into the small
intestine.
a. ileocecal
b. cardioesophageal
c. pyloric
d. analUnit 4 Examination 173 GED 102 The Human Body


13. Large wrinkle-like folds in the stomach lining, present when the stomach is empty, that allow
for expansion when the stomach is filling are called ________.
a. villi
b. haustra
c. microvilli
d. rugae


14. The medial indentation where the ureter, blood vessels, and nerves are connected to the kidney
is called the ________.
a. renal capsule
b. renal column
c. renal pyramid
d. renal hilum


15. There are three regions of the kidney; the outermost region is known as the ________.
a. renal medulla
b. renal cortex
c. renal pelvis
d. renal hilum


16. Renal (medullary) pyramids are separated by extensions of cortex-like tissue called the
________.
a. renal columns
b. renal pelvis
c. renal hilum
d. renal capsule


17. The blood vessel carrying blood from the aorta into the kidney is the ________.
a. hepatic artery
b. renal artery
c. renal vein
d. glomerulus


18. The functional unit of the kidney that filters blood and forms urine is the ________.
a. glomerulus
b. nephron
c. renal pyramid
d. renal pelvisUnit 4 Examination 174 GED 102 The Human Body


19. The blood vessel directly feeding the glomerulus with blood from the cortical radiate artery is
the ________.
a. peritubular capillary
b. efferent arteriole
c. renal vein
d. afferent arteriole


20. The gonads produce sex cells, also known as ________,
a. zygotes
b. interstitial cells
c. gametes
d. spermatids


21. Sperm are formed in tightly coiled tubes called seminiferous tubules that are found within
each ________.
a. spermatic cord
b. testis
c. ductus (vas) deferens
d. epididymis


22. The glands that produce a thick, yellowish secretion which nourishes and activates sperm are
the ________.
a. bulbo-urethral glands
b. prostate
c. seminal glands (vesicles)
d. ejaculatory duct


23. The ________ gland surrounds the upper portion of the urethra just below the junction with the
urinary bladder.
a. ejaculatory
b. seminal
c. bulbo-urethral
d. prostateUnit 4 Examination 175 GED 102 The Human Body


24. The enlarged tip of the penis is called the ________.
a. glans penis
b. shaft
c. scrotum
d. prepuce (foreskin)


25. The male external genitalia include the ________ and the ________.
a. testes; ductus (vas) deferens
b. spermatic cord; glans penis
c. penis; scrotum
d. seminal glands (vesicles); ejaculatory duct


GED 210 Introduction to Cultural Anthropology Unit 3 Examination

GED 210 Introduction to Cultural Anthropology Unit 3 Examination
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  1. The most important belief underlying the practice of having a widow marry one of her brothers-in-law is that:
  • her family should not have to return the bride price
  • the rights of the deceased husband must be preserved
  • all men should have more than one wife
  • widows should never have to live alone

  1. The most common form of polyandry is ________, in which brothers share a wife.
  • risk taking
  • sibling polyandry
  • fraternal polyandry
  • levirate

  1. When a married couple goes to live in the house of the brother of the husband’s mother, the post-marital residence pattern is referred to as:
  • avunculocal
  • matrilocal
  • patrilocal
  • fratrilocal

  1. In most tribal societies, rules of descent, marriage, and residence are:
  • flexible and often subject to lengthy discussion and negotiations
  • strictly enforced and rarely changed
  • known only to village elders, who are consulted whenever a decision must be made
  • unconscious, and therefore defined mostly by outsiders (such as ethnographers)

  1. In general, divorces are most common among societies that are:
  • patrilineal and patrilocal
  • matrilineal and matrilocal
  • organized into bilateral descent groups
  • polyandrous and avunculocal

  1. Deborah Gewertz, who has re-examined Mead’s interpretations of the Tchambuli (Chambri), arrived at the conclusion that:
  • Chambri women are among the most aggressive in all human societies
  • Mead’s interpretations failed to take specific historical circumstances into account
  • Chambri men were submissive due to frequent defeats in warfare
  • cultural values do not influence gender roles


  1. The Kula, described by Malinowski in Argonauts of the Pacific, refers to:
  • a type of outrigger canoe used for long-distance travel by island chiefs
  • a ceremonial dance performed by the indigenous Hawaiians
  • a ritual in which red shell necklaces were traded for white armbands
  • a sacred beverage whose use was restricted to Tahitian chiefs

  1. The Kula is an example of what type of exchange?
  • redistribution
  • balanced reciprocity
  • hypergamy
  • market exchange

  1. The term “barter” is used to refer to:
  • the agreement on a certain price for a specified product
  • a system of unbalanced reciprocity in which goods of unequal value are exchanged
  • the direct exchange of one commodity for another
  • the redistribution of goods in a marketplace

  1. The potlatch feasts of the northwest coast societies are usually interpreted as a form of:
  • long-distance barter
  • resource conservation
  • ritualized warfare
  • redistributional exchange

  1. Which of the following might be interpreted as a modern example of the potlatch?
  • A local politician gives away hundreds of frozen turkeys at a campaign rally.
  • A special interest group pays the salary and expenses of a lobbyist.
  • A former president makes speeches in favor of his party’s new candidate.
  • Delegates at a national convention trade buttons and other campaign memorabilia

  1. A major difference between redistributional and reciprocal economies is that:
  • reciprocal economies are more common in societies with inequalities in social status
  • redistributional economies tend to make certain individuals wealthier than others
  • reciprocal economies always involve the exchange of a recognized form of currency
  • only redistributional economies involve transfers of goods among related villagers

  1. From a cross-cultural study, Jack Goody learned that bridewealth occurs more frequently in horticultural societies, whereas the dowry system is most frequently found in agricultural states. He further hypothesized that one function of the dowry system was to:
  • consolidate property in the hands of elite groups, thus increasing their wealth and status
  • spread wealth out over a larger area so that everyone in the society had about the same level of affluence
  • counteract the practice of bridewealth, non-adaptive in an agricultural state, because it allowed certain families to accumulate too much wealth by selling their daughters to the highest bidder
  • create an egalitarian society

  1. Since wealth and status determine the type of marriage patterns found in agricultural states, the primary form of marriage for all but the elite was:
  • polygyny
  • polyandry
  • polygamy
  • monogamy

  1. Monogamy is the primary form of marriage in most agricultural states. The probable reason this pattern is so prevalent is:
  • most agricultural states have laws against polygamous marriages of any kind becausethey disrupt the normal flow of the agricultural cycle
  • in agricultural societies, where land is a scarce commodity, peasants cannot afford the luxury of polygyny
  • polygyny is impossible because there are fewer women than men in agricultural states
  • most peasants can only afford to accumulate enough wealth for one dowry

  1. Divorce was rare in agricultural states because of a number of factors. Which of the following is not one of the factors discussed in the text?
  • Both the corporate character of the extended family and the necessity for cooperative labor among family members usually lead to normative constraints against divorce.
  • Marriage was the most important way that land was transferred, and marriages were the basis of alliances between families and kin groups.
  • In some societies, marriage became a sacred institution and there were laws againstdivorce.
  • Divorce was not allowed in many, if not all, agricultural states because of the emotional disruption it caused to the family members, often making them unfit for agricultural labor.

  1. In many agricultural states, women were restricted to domestic activities while men were permitted to engage in public (outside) endeavors. Women were often not allowed to own property, engage in politics, or pursue educational goals. These restrictions were reflected in a number of cultural practices such as:
  • purdah and foot binding
  • caste system
  • idiographic mediation
  • dowry and bridewealth

  1. Social inequality is exemplified in the __________ of Indi These social units are endogamous groupings into which a person is born and dies.
  • purdah system
  • shogun scheme
  • caste system
  • slavery system

  1. Capitalist societies share three basic ideals. Which of the following is NOT one of these ideals?
  • The elements of production are privately owned
  • Companies are free to maximize profits and accumulate wealth.
  • Land and resources should be owned and controlled by the state government, while production and services are in the hands of free enterprise.
  • Free competition and consumer independence are basic to all economic activities.

  1. Anthropologists have found that kinship in industrial states:
  • often becomes solidified and molded into large descent groups called oligoclans
  • becomes much more important and clearly defined than in preindustrial societies
  • becomes less important as new structures and organizations replace and begin to perform many of the functions associated with kinship in preindustrial societies
  • tends to remain about the same as is found in chiefdom societies

  1. With industrialization, the functions of the family changed, and one of the major transformations was the:
  • increase in the frequency of polyandrous marriages, especially those involving brothers
  • decrease in the mobility of members of the family since they were all tied to industrial production
  • increase in matrilocal residence and a reduction in patrilocal residence
  • diminishing importance of the extended family and the emergence of the nuclear family

  1. As nuclear families replace extended families in industrial societies, older people no longer reside with their adult children. The role of the elderly in retaining and disseminating information has diminished in industrial societies. The elderly have lost much of their economic power. Sociologist Donald O. Cowgill has hypothesized that:
  • The status and role of the elderly in the future will increase because the birthrate has dropped to an all-time low.
  • There will be an elderly revolution, termed the “silver-haired rebellion,” which will place much of the lost power and status back into the hands of the older segment of society.
  • As the rate of technological change accelerates, knowledge quickly becomes obsolete, and this decreases the status and role of the elderly (they are no longer the storage houses of technological knowledge; libraries and databanks have taken over this role).
  • In the future, there will be a major reorganization of kinship and the family, which will restore power to the elderly.

  1. Chiefdoms and agricultural states are classified as __________ because they provide little opportunity for social mobility. Industrial states, on the other hand, are considered ___________ because social status can be achieved through individual effort.
  • oppressive; free
  • hierarchical; egalitarian
  • closed societies; open societies
  • caste cultures; kindred cultures

  1. The House of Lords in Great Britain differs from the House of Commons because membership in the House of Lords is:
  • based on intellect
  • inherited through families
  • limited to those individuals who have already served in the house of commons
  • based on religious affiliation and achieved status

  1. The primary mode of social mobility in Japanese society is:
  • education
  • luck
  • inheritance
  • what is called burakumin and eta